Listening test has a set of 40 questions which you have to answer in 30 minutes. The recording has 4 sections. the recording will be played once and it will never be played again.
Section 1: Question 1-10
Question 1-3: Answer the following questions using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR NUMBERS for each answer.
1. How long will the customer’s course last? ………………………
2. Which course has the customer already taken at the school? ………………………..
3. How much discount can returning students qualify for? ………………………..
Question 4-6: Complete the following sentences using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR NUMBERS for each gap.
4. The customer’s address is ………………………
5. The customer can contact his former teacher by ……………………….
6. There are hours of classes each day, Monday to Friday ……………………….
Question 7-10: Answer the following questions using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDSfor each answer.
7. What is the customer’s impression of the female Arabic teacher? ……………………….
8. What other languages can the customer speak? …………………………
9. What does the customer decide is the third factor in choosing a school? ……………………….
10. What does the customer say the reception area should be like? …………………………
Section 2: Question 11-20
Question 11-13: Complete the following sentences using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR NUMBERS for each gap.
11. The Construction Education Centre has existed for ……………………….
12. The CEC receives visitors, trainees, and delegates each year …………………………
13. Equipment is available for days …………………….
Question 14-16: Complete the following information about the various rooms available at the CEC.
Name of room Capacity Usage
London Room seating 140 used for seminars, presentations, receptions
reception 200 divisible into 14 …………………..
Bloomsbury Room seating 72 used for seminars, lectures, receptions
reception 100
Holborn 1 15 ……………… used for meetings, training classes, presentations
Holborn 2 18 used for meetings, training classes, presentations
Oxford Suite ……….. used for 16 ……………………. , presentations
Question 17-20: Answer the following questions using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR NUMBERS for each answer.
17. In which part of the CEC was the “Sustainable London” event held? ………………………..
18. How many schemes were shown at the “Sustainable London” event? ………………………
19. When does the CEC expect to have 150 students? ……………………
Section 3: Question 21-30
Question 21-23: Choose the correct answer A, B, C, or D.
21. David says that he thinks a gap year is unsuitable for …………………..
A. a few people C. the majority of people
B. some people D. almost all people
22. Gap years began because Oxford and Cambridge ……………………..
A. demanded all students take one C. only considered applicants whose results were known
B. demand all students take one D. only consider applicants whose results are known
23. Gap years are popular in …………………….
A. the UK and Australia C. the UK, Australia, and most of Europe
B. the UK, Australia, and the USA D. developed countries
Question 24-27: Choose the correct answer or answers A, B, C and or D
24. Students in most European countries A study 4-year courses at university ………………………..
B. have longer courses than British students
C. have longer holidays than British students
D. have less chance to cam money during a gap year
25. David says that gap years cost £15,000 to £20,000 because that is ………………………
A. the total cost of travel, accommodation, food, insurance, etc…
B. the salary a new graduate can expect
C. the cost of the gap year plus the salary a graduate can expect
D. how much a person loses throughout their career by taking a gap year
26. Kelly says that a gap year can benefit young people by ……………………….
A. increasing motivation
B. providing insights into their study field
C. making their CV attractive to employers
D. helping them get a higher salary after graduating
27. David says that ……………………..
A. useful non-academic skills can be learned during a gap year
B. most young people get good university degrees
C. gap years don’t teach young people useful skills
D. employers think gap years are a waste of time
Question 28-30: Complete the following sentences using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each gap.
28. Kelly suggests working for a …………………..
29.Research shows employers appreciate young people who have lived outside ………………
30. The graduate workplace requires flexibility and …………………..
Section 4: Question 31-40
Question 31-33: Complete the following sentences using NO MORE THAN TWO WORDSfor each gap.
31. Prairie dog’s barks have meanings …………………….
32. Prairie dogs are able to invent ……………………. for things they have never seen before.
33. Prairie dogs in Arizona and Colorado appear to speak different, but mutually comprehensible ……………………….
Question 34-36: Complete the following notes on the criteria set by linguists for something to be a language.
• has words with 34 …………………….
• word order helps convey meaning
• possible to introduce fresh vocabulary
• made up of 35 …………………
• can 36 …………………… regardless of time and space
Question 37-40: Answer the following questions using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDSfor each answer.
37. What did the researcher use to record prairie dog’s barks? ……………………….
38. What kind of animal is the great-horned owl? ………………………
39. Why wouldn’t the prairie dogs know of the European ferret? ……………………..
40. What kind of animal is the coyote described as? ……………………
Answer & Explanation1. 4/four weeks
2. Arabic refresher (course)
3. 5%
4. 38 Temple Way
5. e-mail
6. 4/four
7. well spoken, friendly
8. French and German
9. location
10. welcoming
11. seventy / 70 years
12. over 100,000
13. half or whole
14. three / 3 separate rooms
15. 20- 22
16. executive meeting
17. (in/the) exhibition area/part
18. over 60
19. in two/2 years
20. (a) car park
21. C
22. C
23. A
24. B
25. B
26. A
27. A
28. charity
29. their comfort zones
30. improvisation skills
31. distinct, individual (NB just one of these two words is acceptable)
32. (new) terms
33. dialects
34. abstract meaning
35. smaller elements
36. use words
37. digital recorders
38. nocturnal
39. (it is) foreign
40. (a) predator